【答案】
分析:(1)f (1)=a-b=0,可得a=b,代入f′(x),要使函數(shù)f (x)在其定義域內(nèi)為單調(diào)函數(shù),則?x∈(0,+∞)內(nèi)f′(x)=

≥0,內(nèi)f′(x)=

≤0恒成立,結(jié)合函數(shù)的性質(zhì)可求a的范圍
(2)①由題意及導(dǎo)數(shù)的幾何意義可得,f′(1)=0,從而可求f′(x),結(jié)合已知

,利用數(shù)學(xué)歸納法可證①
②由a
n+1=a
n(a
n-n)+1及①對(duì)k≥2都有a
k=a
k-1(a
k-1-k+1)+1≥a
k-1(k-1+2-k+1)+1=2a
k-1+1,利用不等式的放縮可得a
k+1≥2(a
k-1+1)≥2
2(a
k-2+1)≥2
3(a
k-3+1)≥…≥2
k-1(a
1+1),結(jié)合等比數(shù)列的求和公式即可判斷
解答:解:(1)∵f (1)=a-b=0,
∴a=b,
∴f′(x)=

.
要使函數(shù)f (x)在其定義域內(nèi)為單調(diào)函數(shù),則?x∈(0,+∞)內(nèi)f′(x)=

≥0,
或f′(x)=

≤0恒成立
∵

由f′(x)≥0得

而

∴a≥1由f′(x)≤0得

而

∴a≤0經(jīng)驗(yàn)證a=0及a=1均合題意,故a≤0或a≥1
∴所求實(shí)數(shù)a的取值范圍為a≥1或a≤0. (5分)
(2)∵函數(shù)f (x)的圖象在x=1處的切線的斜率為0,
∴f′(1)=0,即a+a-2=0,解得a=1,
∴f′(x)=

,
∴a
n+1=f′

.(7分)
①用數(shù)學(xué)歸納法證明:(i)當(dāng)n=1時(shí),a
1≥3=1+2,不等式成立;
(ii)假設(shè)當(dāng)n=k時(shí)不等式成立,即a
k≥k+2,那么a
k-k≥2>0,
∴a
k+1=a
k (a
k-k)+1≥2 (k+2)+1=(k+3)+k+2>k+3,
也就是說,當(dāng)n=k+1時(shí),a
k+1≥(k+1)+2.根據(jù)(i)和(ii),對(duì)于所有n≥1,有a
n≥n+2. (10分)
②由a
n+1=a
n(a
n-n)+1及①對(duì)k≥2都有a
k=a
k-1(a
k-1-k+1)+1≥a
k-1(k-1+2-k+1)+1=2a
k-1+1
∴a
k+1≥2(a
k-1+1)≥2
2(a
k-2+1)≥2
3(a
k-3+1)≥…≥2
k-1(a
1+1)
而

于是當(dāng)k≥2時(shí),


∴


=

=

(13分)
點(diǎn)評(píng):本題主要考察了導(dǎo)數(shù)的函數(shù)的導(dǎo)數(shù)在函數(shù)的單調(diào)性中的應(yīng)用,數(shù)學(xué)歸納法在數(shù)學(xué)命題的證明中的應(yīng)用及放縮法的應(yīng)用,具有一定的綜合性